Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
13.06.2025 04:03
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
There's no rule.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Are cold plunges good for you? Here’s what the science says. - The Washington Post
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
You'll usually find your answer there.
What is the most inappropriate thing your wife has done in front of you?
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.